Post by George on Sept 25, 2019 12:10:44 GMT
The premise that is being promoted here that arabic is a younger version of aramaic and that it is made up language is TOTALLY WRONG.
Arabic is the OLDEST living Semitic language. Aramaic and Hebrew do not even come remotely close to being as archaic and well preserved a Semitic language as Arabic is. Some Jews and Christians have tried to attack the language of the Qur'an when their attacks on the Qur'an have failed, but the simple fact is that Hebrew & Aramaic were much more evolved 3000+ years ago, than Arabic is till this day. It is completely impossible for Arabic to have evolved from Syriac or Hebrew, because those languages are like simplified forms of Arabic, not the other way 'round.
The proof of this is very simple. Arabic preserves 28 of the original 29 Semitic letters, modern Hebrew only preserves about 20 (Ancient Biblical Hebrew only preserved 25), modern Aramaic (e.g Syriac) only preserves 22. Arabic preserves the case inflection system, dual markers etc. all things which disappeared from Aramaic and Hebrew at least 3000+ years ago. The idea that Arabic could be a descendant of these languages, or could have evolved from them is just ludicrous. The idea they could've descended from Arabic (or it's direct ancestor) though is quite plausible.
Hebrew and Aramaic have undergone many simplifications in their sounds. As an example the word "bint" (girl) in Arabic is said as "bat" in Hebrew. It is the same word, but due to the noon saakin in this word, they lost the noon from it thousands of years ago. In plural form they still say banot (banaat, as long alef became 'o' in Hebrew), but in singular form they lost the noon altogether from the word. The same for "ins" (human) which became "ish" in Hebrew, again the noon has been completely removed from the word. Another example is their word kharash (meaning: plough a field and also to be silent), which doesn't initially seem to match any Arabic words. But if we know they merged Haa & Khaa into Khaa and Sin/Shin & Thaa into Shin, then we can realise this is actually two words that have merged into one. Haratha (plough/harvest a field) and Kharasa (be silent). Aramaic has also undergone many simplifications like this.
If Arabic were descended from Hebrew or Aramaic or even heavily influenced by them, then we'd expect to see these simplifications carried over into Arabic, yet we do not. Arabic is almost completely free of such simplifications. Apart from the letters Sin & Samek having merged together in Arabic sometime just before the Islamic period for almost all dialects, there are very few simplifications in Arabic.
So the idea that the language of the Qur'an is the simplified and corrupted language of Aramaic/Syriac is just ridiculous. The Arabic language of the Qur'an and it's pristine Semitic features predates Aramaic's corruptions by thousands of years. Anyone who knows a little of both languages would know this instantly.
Arabic is the OLDEST living Semitic language. Aramaic and Hebrew do not even come remotely close to being as archaic and well preserved a Semitic language as Arabic is. Some Jews and Christians have tried to attack the language of the Qur'an when their attacks on the Qur'an have failed, but the simple fact is that Hebrew & Aramaic were much more evolved 3000+ years ago, than Arabic is till this day. It is completely impossible for Arabic to have evolved from Syriac or Hebrew, because those languages are like simplified forms of Arabic, not the other way 'round.
The proof of this is very simple. Arabic preserves 28 of the original 29 Semitic letters, modern Hebrew only preserves about 20 (Ancient Biblical Hebrew only preserved 25), modern Aramaic (e.g Syriac) only preserves 22. Arabic preserves the case inflection system, dual markers etc. all things which disappeared from Aramaic and Hebrew at least 3000+ years ago. The idea that Arabic could be a descendant of these languages, or could have evolved from them is just ludicrous. The idea they could've descended from Arabic (or it's direct ancestor) though is quite plausible.
Hebrew and Aramaic have undergone many simplifications in their sounds. As an example the word "bint" (girl) in Arabic is said as "bat" in Hebrew. It is the same word, but due to the noon saakin in this word, they lost the noon from it thousands of years ago. In plural form they still say banot (banaat, as long alef became 'o' in Hebrew), but in singular form they lost the noon altogether from the word. The same for "ins" (human) which became "ish" in Hebrew, again the noon has been completely removed from the word. Another example is their word kharash (meaning: plough a field and also to be silent), which doesn't initially seem to match any Arabic words. But if we know they merged Haa & Khaa into Khaa and Sin/Shin & Thaa into Shin, then we can realise this is actually two words that have merged into one. Haratha (plough/harvest a field) and Kharasa (be silent). Aramaic has also undergone many simplifications like this.
If Arabic were descended from Hebrew or Aramaic or even heavily influenced by them, then we'd expect to see these simplifications carried over into Arabic, yet we do not. Arabic is almost completely free of such simplifications. Apart from the letters Sin & Samek having merged together in Arabic sometime just before the Islamic period for almost all dialects, there are very few simplifications in Arabic.
So the idea that the language of the Qur'an is the simplified and corrupted language of Aramaic/Syriac is just ridiculous. The Arabic language of the Qur'an and it's pristine Semitic features predates Aramaic's corruptions by thousands of years. Anyone who knows a little of both languages would know this instantly.